Today marked the return of WomanForTruth101 to the comments section. She wasted no time in making the standard groundless complaints. Let's examine one of them.
I quoted four extremely clear, self-explanatory passages from the Qur'an, and one from Sahih Muslim. In response, WomanForTruth101 said:
"Aside from your laughable re-interpretations in which many of us have had the honor to refute, it'd be good for you to know that militants in Russia are not motivated by religion but by occupation in Chechnya. I can't find the article at the moment but I will post a link to it soon."
This would be a good place to compare my "laughable reinterpretations" with WomanForTruth101's Westernized, watered down, Walt Disney interpretations. Since I don't recall reading anything by WomanForTruth101, I'll see how accurately I can guess her interpretations.
Qur’an 9:29—Fight those who believe not in Allah nor the Last Day, nor hold that forbidden which hath been forbidden by Allah and His Messenger, nor acknowledge the Religion of Truth, from among the People of the Book, until they pay the Jizyah with willing submission, and feel themselves subdued.
My Interpretation: When the Qur'an commands Muslims to "fight those who believe not in Allah," it means that Muslims should "fight those who believe not in Allah." Is there anything in the immediate context that suggests another interpretation? No. Anything in the historical context that suggests another interpretation? No. Hence, I take the obvious meaning to be the literal meaning of the words.
WomanForTruth101's Interpretation: When the Qur'an commands Muslims to "fight those who believe not in Allah," it means that Muslims should live in peace, harmony, and tolerance with everyone. Anything in the immediate context that suggests this interpretation? No. Anything in the historical context that suggests this interpretation? No. Hence, WomanForTruth101's interpretation is totally at odds with the clear meaning of the words. If Allah meant to say that Muslims should live in peace, harmony, and tolerance with everyone, why didn't he just say this?
Qur’an 9:111—Surely Allah has bought of the believers their persons and their property for this, that they shall have the garden; they fight in Allah's way, so they slay and are slain.
My Interpretation: When the Qur'an says that Muslims "fight in Allah's way, so they slay and are slain," it means that Muslims "fight in Allah's way, so they slay and are slain." Is there anything in the immediate context that suggests another interpretation? No. Anything in the historical context that suggests another interpretation? No. Hence, I take the obvious meaning to be the literal meaning of the words.
WomanForTruth101's Interpretation: When the Qur'an says that Muslims "fight in Allah's way, so they slay and are slain," it means that Muslims only fight in extreme cases of self defense. Anything in the immediate context that suggests this interpretation? No. Anything in the historical context that suggests this interpretation? No. Hence, WomanForTruth101's interpretation is totally at odds with the clear meaning of the words. If Allah meant to say that Muslims should only fight in self defense, why didn't he just say this?
Qur’an 9:123—O you who believe! fight those of the unbelievers who are near to you and let them find in you hardness; and know that Allah is with those who guard (against evil).
My Interpretation: When the Qur'an commands Muslims to "fight those of the unbelievers who are near to you," it means that Muslims should "fight those of the unbelievers who are near to you." Is there anything in the immediate context that suggests another interpretation? No. Anything in the historical context that suggests another interpretation? No. Hence, I take the obvious meaning to be the literal meaning of the words.
WomanForTruth101's Interpretation: When the Qur'an commands Muslims to "fight those of the unbelievers who are near to you," it means that Muslims should hold interfaith dialogues with unbelievers. Anything in the immediate context that suggests this interpretation? No. Anything in the historical context that suggests this interpretation? No. Hence, WomanForTruth101's interpretation is totally at odds with the clear meaning of the words. If Allah meant to say that Muslims should hold interfaith dialogues, why didn't he just say this?
Qur’an 48:29—Muhammad is the Messenger of Allah, and those who are with him are severe against disbelievers, and merciful among themselves.
My Interpretation: When the Qur'an says that Muslims are "severe against disbelievers, and merciful among themselves," it means that Muslims are supposed to be "severe against disbelievers, and merciful among themselves." Is there anything in the immediate context that suggests another interpretation? No. Anything in the historical context that suggests another interpretation? No. Hence, I take the obvious meaning to be the literal meaning of the words.
WomanForTruth101's Interpretation: When the Qur'an says that Muslims are "severe against disbelievers, and merciful among themselves," it means that Muslims are merciful towards everyone. Anything in the immediate context that suggests this interpretation? No. Anything in the historical context that suggests this interpretation? No. Hence, WomanForTruth101's interpretation is totally at odds with the clear meaning of the words. If Allah meant to say that Muslims should be merciful towards everyone, why didn't he just say this?
Sahih Muslim 33—The Messenger of Allah said: I have been commanded to fight against people till they testify that there is no god but Allah, that Muhammad is the messenger of Allah, and they establish prayer, and pay Zakat and if they do it, their blood and property are guaranteed protection on my behalf except when justified by law, and their affairs rest with Allah.
My Interpretation: When Muhammad said that he had been commanded to "fight against people till they testify that there is no god but Allah," he meant that he had been commanded to "fight against people till they testify that there is no god but Allah." Is there anything in the immediate context that suggests another interpretation? No. Anything in the historical context that suggests another interpretation? No. Hence, I take the obvious meaning to be the literal meaning of the words.
WomanForTruth101's Interpretation: When Muhammad said that he had been commanded to "fight against people till they testify that there is no god but Allah," he meant that he had been commanded to peacefully complain about "Islamophobia" until people stop persecuting Muslims. Anything in the immediate context that suggests this interpretation? No. Anything in the historical context that suggests this interpretation? No. Hence, WomanForTruth101's interpretation is totally at odds with the clear meaning of the words. If Muhammad meant to say that he should peacefully complain about Islamophobia, why didn't he say this?
So here's what we have. In each of the above cases, I go with the clear meaning of the text, while WomanForTruth101 concludes that the text means, in effect, the opposite of what it actually says. Yet this gives rise to another problem. The Qur'an claims, again and again, to be "clear":
Qur'an 5:15—O followers of the Book! indeed Our Apostle has come to you making clear to you much of what you concealed of the Book and passing over much; indeed, there has come to you light and a clear Book from Allah.
Qur'an 12:1—Alif Lam Ra. These are verses of the clear Book.
Qur'an 15:1—Alif Lam Ra. These are the verses of the Book and (of) a Quran that makes (things) clear.
Qur'an 26:2—These are the verses of the Book that makes (things) clear.
Qur'an 36:69—We have not instructed the (Prophet) in Poetry, nor is it meet for him: this is no less than a Message and a Qur'an making things clear.
(See also 4:174, 10:15, 16:103, 19:73, 22:16, 22:72, 24:1, 24:34, 24:46, 26:192-195, 27:1, 28:2, 34:43, 43:2, 44:2, 46:7, 57:9, 58:5, 65:11, etc.)
So it seems that Westernized Muslims are in a bit of a pickle. If the Qur'an really is "clear" (as it claims over and over), then when it commands Muslims to fight unbelievers, to subjugate unbelievers, to be harsh towards unbelievers, it must mean what it says. Hence, the Qur'an promotes violence and oppression. If, on the other hand, the Qur'an really means the opposite of what it says (e.g. when it commands Muslims to "fight," it really means that they should "hug"), then the Qur'an is not clear, and is therefore wrong when it repeatedly claims to be clear.
On a different note, if WomenForTruth101 is correct, I don't see how she can call people to Islam. If the Qur'an frequently means the exact opposite of what it says, then perhaps when it commands people to reject the Deity of Christ, it actually means that they should accept the Deity of Christ. Maybe when the Qur'an says that Jesus didn't die, it actually means that he did die. When the Qur'an denies the Trinity, it could be affirming the Trinity. Once Muslims have destroyed the clear meaning of the Qur'an, aren't all interpretations equal?