Why would passover be the correct word when Acts 12 is in a post ressurection semantic domain? www.easterau.com
Hi Textus Receptus. Passover would be the correct word because that is what the original text has which is the Greek word 'pascha'. Even the NKJV uses "Passover" in Acts 12:4. The KJV translators were influenced by William Tyndale's translation and Tyndale was influenced by Luther's translation. The KJV were not always consistent here as Tyndale and Luther also used 'Easter' in Luke 2:41 and 1 Corinthians 5:7 in their translations but the KJV translators used "passover". Hope this helps.
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